9. One political party has consistently won a House seat within a particular district with 75-80% of the vote. Then, one year, the other party wins the seat with 85% of the vote. This result could best be explained by which of the following? Gerrymandering Incumbent advantage Censure Reapportionment

This question is asking for the best explanation for a sudden change in political party representation in a district, where one party has consistently won with a high percentage of the vote, but then the other party wins with an even higher percentage of the vote in a subsequent election. The options provided are Gerrymandering, Incumbent advantage, Censure, and Reapportionment.<br /><br />1. Gerrymandering: This is the practice of manipulating the boundaries of an electoral constituency so as to favor one party or class. It could explain a sudden change in party representation if the district boundaries were redrawn to favor the other party.<br /><br />2. Incumbent advantage: This refers to the advantage that current officeholders have in elections, such as greater name recognition or access to campaign resources. While this could potentially influence the outcome of an election, it doesn't explain a sudden change in party representation.<br /><br />3. Censure: This is a formal expression of disapproval. It doesn't explain a sudden change in party representation.<br /><br />4. Reapportionment: This is the process of reassigning representation based on population changes. While this could potentially influence the outcome of an election, it doesn't explain a sudden change in party representation.<br /><br />Given these explanations, the best answer is Gerrymandering, as it could explain a sudden change in party representation if the district boundaries were redrawn to favor the other party.